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Depends on the act of oppression. If it's something that's codified under law, and there's evidence to prove the claim, well, see you in court. If it's simply something like a "mansplaination," well, Person A telling Person B she isn't being oppressed because Person A doesn't believe she's being oppressed in no way changes what person B is experiencing. And Person A, quite frankly, is being kind of a dink.
But what if person B (man or women, white or black, green or purple, martian or human) is simply wrong? What if they have falsely accused person A of oppressing them? Just because person B believes he or she is being oppressed, just because they feel they are experiencing oppression doesn't make it factually true (it might be, but doesn't prove it objectively).